Differentiating arsinh x
Let y = arsinh x, so that x = sinh y. Differentiating with respect to y gives , and turning that over gives .
To write that in terms of x, use the identity . Since cosh y is always positive, . So arsinh x differentiates to .
arcosh x works the same way. With x = cosh y and , , and . So arcosh x differentiates to , for x > 1.
the hyperbolic sector and the circular sector both have area t/2, so t is an angle for the hyperbola: (cosh t, sinh t) is to x² − y² = 1 what (cos t, sin t) is to x² + y² = 1
Sweep t until both sectors have area ½
The point (cosh t, sinh t) runs along the hyperbola , as (cos t, sin t) runs round the circle . At t = 1.5 it is at (2.35, 2.13). Every point of the hyperbola has , the identity that turns into cosh y. Drag t to 1, where both shaded sectors have area ½.
Reading the derivatives backwards
An integral is a derivative read backwards. Since arsinh x differentiates to , . Since arcosh x differentiates to , , for x > 1.
They sit beside , which comes from differentiating arcsin x the same way. The three roots differ only in their signs.
A general a
For , with a > 0, substitute x = a sinh u. Then dx = a cosh u du, and the root becomes . The a cosh u from dx cancels the a cosh u from the root, and the integral is .
Since x = a sinh u, . So . In the same way, x = a cosh u gives , for x > a.
Check by differentiating. The chain rule gives times , and , so the a cancels and the derivative is . For , a = 4 and the answer is .
Compare , where a factor of stands in front. Here there is none: the root of is a, and that a cancels the a in dx = a cosh u du.
The area under from 0 to is . The integral of from 0 to 4 is the same number, , because the a = 3 only scales the input.
Which family
The sign inside the root decides. In the is taken away, and clears the root, since . So .
In the is added, and x = 3 sinh u clears the root, since . So .
In the 9 is taken away from the , and x = 3 cosh u clears the root, since . So , for x > 3.
A quadratic in another shape can be brought to one of these by completing the square. , a square plus 9, so .
As a logarithm
Solving x = sinh y for y gives , and in the same way for . So .
The − ln a is a constant, so it joins the c. is an equally correct answer, and so is , for x > a.
A definite integral comes out as a logarithm either way. The integral of from 0 to 4 is . Since , the logarithm form gives ln(4 + 5) − ln(0 + 3) = ln 9 − ln 3 = ln 3, about 1.099.
The integral of from 13 to 20 is . Here and , so it is ln(20 + 16) − ln(13 + 5) = ln 36 − ln 18 = ln 2, about 0.693. The two − ln 12 terms cancel.
The usual mistakes
Using arsinh for a minus inside. gives ; arsinh needs the added.
Dropping the a. is ; arsinh x + c differentiates to , the integrand with 1 in place of 16.
Putting the a in front. differentiates to , four times the integrand.
Mixing up the two hyperbolic roots. gives arsinh; gives arcosh, and only for x > 1.
Two beads on a wire
In the application below, a bead slides along a spinning wire and the time it takes is the integral of one over its speed. One bead’s speed has a root of and the other’s a root of , so one time is an arcosh and the other an arsinh, each written as a logarithm.
Worked example: A Bead Sliding Out Along a Spinning Wire: Two Ways of Starting, and How Long Each Takes to Reach the End
Question A bead is threaded on a straight wire 1.2 meters long, which a motor spins in a horizontal plane about one end at a steady 2 radians per second. The bead slides along the wire without friction. When the bead is r meters from the axis, its speed v meters per second along the wire satisfies v2 − 4r2 = k, where the constant k is fixed by how the bead starts. (a) The bead is held 0.4 meters from the axis, at rest on the wire, and let go. How long does it take to reach the far end of the wire? (b) On an identical wire spun the same way, a second bead starts at the axis and is flicked outward along the wire at 0.8 meters per second, at the instant the first bead is let go. How long does it take to reach its far end, and which bead gets there first? Give each time exactly as a logarithm, then to three significant figures.
1.(a) At the start v = 0 and r = 0.4, so k = 0 − 4 × 0.16 = −0.64. Then v2 = 4r2 − 0.64 = 4(r2 − 0.16), so v = 2√r2 − 0.16, and the time to go from r = 0.4 to r = 1.2 is ∫0.41.2dr2√r2 − 0.16 seconds.
(a) From rest at r = 0.4, k = −0.64, so v = 2√r2 − 0.16 and the time is ∫0.41.2dr2√r2 − 0.16: the area under 1v. 2.A square minus a constant under the root: substitute r = 0.4cosh u. Then dr = 0.4sinh u du and √r2 − 0.16 = 0.4√cosh2 u − 1 = 0.4sinh u, so the integrand becomes 0.4sinh u2 × 0.4sinh udu = 12du. Done once and for all, this is ∫dr√r2 − a2 = arcoshra + C.
Substitute r = 0.4cosh u: then √r2 − 0.16 = 0.4sinh u and dr = 0.4sinh u du, so the integrand is 12du. 3.(a) The limits travel with the substitution: r = 0.4 gives cosh u = 1, so u = 0, and r = 1.2 gives cosh u = 3, so u = arcosh 3 = ln(3 + √8). The time is 12ln(3 + 2√2) = ln(1 + √2) = 0.881 seconds, since (1 + √2)2 = 3 + 2√2. The integrand is infinite at r = 0.4, where the bead is at rest, but the area under it is finite.
(a) The limits become u = 0 and u = arcosh 3, so the time is 12ln(3 + √8) = ln(1 + √2) = 0.881 seconds. 4.(b) The second bead has v = 0.8 at r = 0, so k = 0.64 − 0 = 0.64 and v = 2√r2 + 0.16. The sign inside the root has turned over, so substitute r = 0.4sinh u: then dr = 0.4cosh u du and √r2 + 0.16 = 0.4√sinh2 u + 1 = 0.4cosh u, and again the integrand is 12du. Done once and for all, this is ∫dr√r2 + a2 = arsinhra + C.
(b) Flicked from the axis at 0.8 m/s, k = 0.64, so v = 2√r2 + 0.16; the plus sign calls for r = 0.4sinh u, and again the integrand is 12du. 5.(b) The limits: r = 0 gives u = 0, and r = 1.2 gives sinh u = 3, so u = arsinh 3 = ln(3 + √10). The time is 12ln(3 + √10) = 0.909 seconds, so the bead let go from rest reaches its end first, by 0.028 seconds: the flicked bead starts faster but has 1.2 meters to cover instead of 0.8. Check: since the time is u2, the positions are r = 0.4cosh 2n and r = 0.4sinh 2n after n seconds, and 0.4cosh(2 × 0.881) = 1.20 and 0.4sinh(2 × 0.909) = 1.20.
(b) The time is 12arsinh 3 = 12ln(3 + √10) = 0.909 seconds, so the bead let go from rest arrives first, by 0.028 seconds.
Answer: (a) ln(1 + √2) = 0.881 seconds; (b) 12ln(3 + √10) = 0.909 seconds, so the bead let go from rest gets there first, by 0.028 seconds
Common mistakes
- Using arsinh for both beads. The sign inside the root decides: r2 − 0.16 needs r = 0.4cosh u and gives arcosh, while r2 + 0.16 needs r = 0.4sinh u and gives arsinh. Putting arsinh into part (a) gives 12(arsinh 3 − arsinh 1) = 0.469 seconds, about half the true time.
- Leaving out the 2 in front of the root. The speed is twice the root, so the time is half the integral of one over the root; dropping the 2 doubles both answers, to 1.76 and 1.82 seconds.
More techniques of integration problems, worked step by step →